Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 02:43
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How likely is it to make a living out of being a window cleaner in a Nordic country?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Which country has the best and strictest legal system in the world?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Do you believe that it is right that one Federal judge can block a President's decisions?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.